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100% Pass Quiz 2025 CISM: Trustable Certified Information Security Manager Study Reference
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Who should take the CISM exam
The ISACA Certified Information Security Manager CISM Exam certification is an internationally-recognized validation that identifies persons who earn it as possessing skilled as Certified Information Security Manager. If a candidate wants significant improvement in career growth needs enhanced knowledge, skills, and talents. The ISACA Certified Information Security Manager CISM Exam certification provides proof of this advanced knowledge and skill. If a candidate has knowledge and skills that are required to pass the ISACA Certified Information Security Manager CISM Exam then he should take this exam.
The CISM certification exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that cover four domains: Information Security Governance, Information Risk Management and Compliance, Information Security Program Development and Management, and Information Security Incident Management. CISM exam is four hours long and is computer-based. To be eligible to take the CISM exam, candidates must have at least five years of experience in information security, with at least three years of experience in information security management.
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ISACA Certified Information Security Manager Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following is the BEST metric for evaluating the effectiveness of security awareness twining? The number of:
- A. password resets.
- B. reported incidents.
- C. access rule violations.
- D. incidents resolved.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM DEVELOPMENT
Explanation:
Reported incidents will provide an indicator of the awareness level of staff. An increase in reported incidents could indicate that the staff is paying more attention to security. Password resets and access rule violations may or may not have anything to do with awareness levels. The number of incidents resolved may not correlate to staff awareness.
NEW QUESTION # 25
When an organization experiences a disruptive event, the business continuity plan (BCP) should be triggered PRIMARILY based on:
- A. expected duration of outage.
- B. the root cause of the event.
- C. management direction.
- D. type of security incident.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The expected duration of outage is the primary factor that should trigger the BCP because it indicates how long the organization can tolerate the disruption of its critical business processes and functions before it causes unacceptable consequences. The expected duration of outage is determined by the recovery time objectives (RTOs) that are defined for each critical business process and function based on the business impact analysis (BIA). The BCP should be triggered when the expected duration of outage exceeds or is likely to exceed the RTOs.
References: The CISM Review Manual 2023 defines RTO as "the maximum acceptable time that a service can be unavailable or disrupted before it causes unacceptable consequences" and states that "the RTO is determined based on the impact of service interruption on the enterprise's business processes, reputation, customers, and stakeholders" (p. 189). The CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023 also provides the following rationale for this answer: "Expected duration of outage is the correct answer because it is the primary factor that should trigger the BCP, as it reflects the maximum time that the organization can afford to lose its critical business processes and functions without causing unacceptable consequences" (p. 96). Additionally, the article Invoking your business continuity plan: five triggers, six decision points from the ITWeb website states that "the expected duration of outage is the most important consideration when deciding to invoke the BCP, as it indicates how long the organization can sustain the disruption before it impacts its business objectives, operations, reputation, and legal obligations" (p. 2)
NEW QUESTION # 26
When customer data has been compromised, an organization should contact law enforcement authorities:
- A. if there is potential impact to the organization.
- B. when directed by the information security manager.
- C. in accordance with the corporate communication policy.
- D. if the attack comes from an international source.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 27
Effective IT governance is BEST ensured by:
- A. utilizing a top-down approach.
- B. management by the IT department.
- C. utilizing a bottom-up approach.
- D. referring the matter to the organization's legal department.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY GOVERNANCE
Explanation:
Effective IT governance needs to be a top-down initiative, with the board and executive management setting clear policies, goals and objectives and providing for ongoing monitoring of the same. Focus on the regulatory issues and management priorities may not be reflected effectively by a bottom-up approach. IT governance affects the entire organization and is not a matter concerning only the management of IT. The legal department is part of the overall governance process, but cannot take full responsibility.
NEW QUESTION # 28
What is the MAIN drawback of e-mailing password-protected zip files across the Internet? They:
- A. may be quarantined by mail filters.
- B. are decrypted by the firewall.
- C. all use weak encryption.
- D. may be corrupted by the receiving mail server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
Often, mail filters will quarantine zip files that are password-protected since the filter (or the firewall) is unable to determine if the file contains malicious code. Many zip file products are capable of using strong encryption.
Such files are not normally corrupted by the sending mail server.
NEW QUESTION # 29
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